Free CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Practice Test

A true on-premises network architecture scenario involves all hardware and software being housed within the organization's facilities, with IT staff having physical access to servers and network devices. The correct answer is ‘Servers and network devices are stored in a local data center, and the applications used by the company are running on this hardware.’ This scenario explicitly describes an environment lacking cloud or external resources. The incorrect answers introduce elements of external control, shared resources, or cloud integration, all of which do not align purely with an on-premises architecture.

The correct answer is the Security Team. In the event of a suspected breach, the first action is to alert the individuals directly responsible for managing and investigating security incidents. This usually includes the security team or the incident response team, who have the skills and procedures in place to assess the situation, contain the threat, and take appropriate measures. While executive management, HR, and legal may eventually need to be involved, immediate notification to the security team allows for the fastest response to potential threats.

Proprietary systems can be a challenge in vulnerability management because they are often closed source, which means that only the original vendors have the ability to produce and distribute patches. This control by the vendor can lead to slower response times for patching vulnerabilities compared to open-source systems where the community can contribute to security fixes.

A Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is a network segment that acts as a buffer zone between the internal network and untrusted networks, such as the internet. It is used to host systems that must be accessible from both internal and external networks but should not provide a direct route to the internal network. By placing legacy systems that require external access within a DMZ and allowing only specific, necessary communication, the organization can maintain tight security over these connections, reducing exposure to potential threats.

A VLAN is useful for segmenting the internal network but does not specifically cater to the safe handling of external communications. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is important for protecting sensitive information from leaving the network but does not fundamentally address the regulation of communication channels with external partners. A NAC solution focuses on regulating access to the network by devices and users within the organization, rather than managing the flow of network traffic to and from external connections.

Including the risk score in the vulnerability report is fundamental as it aids in prioritizing the vulnerabilities based on their potential impact and the likelihood of exploitation. Clear risk scoring can help management understand which vulnerabilities pose the greatest risk to the organization and should be addressed first. Affected hosts would be important to understanding the scope, but without a risk score, it's hard to prioritize. Mitigation steps are critical after prioritization, and recurrence data is valuable but more related to tracking and trends rather than immediate actions.

A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is adept at collecting, normalizing, and correlating event data from diverse sources, offering advanced data visualization and timeline analysis capabilities, thus it's the correct choice for managing complex, interconnected tasks across a network during an incident. While automated response platforms aid in response and recovery, the emphasis on timeline analysis tips the balance in favor of a SIEM system here. Digital forensics platforms lack the real-time event correlation capabilities of SIEM systems and while a firewall is crucial for network security, it does not provide the same level of incident analysis and visualization that a SIEM system offers.

Configuration management is vital for maintaining the security posture of an organization because it involves the maintenance and consistency of a product's performance, functional, and physical attributes with its requirements, design, and operational information. This is important for ensuring that all systems are configured to a secure baseline and that any changes are recorded and evaluated for security impact.

A live response tool is specifically designed for capturing volatile data such as running processes, open connections, and in-memory structures, all of which could be lost if a system is powered down. These tools can also operate in a minimally invasive manner to prevent significant changes to the system. A disk imaging tool, while important for capturing a snapshot of a system's disk, is not typically used for volatile data and will not capture data that resides in memory. Network sniffers capture network traffic and are not suitable for preserving in-memory data. A file integrity monitoring system is used to track changes to files over time and would not be capable of capturing or preserving volatile system data, such as RAM contents.

Implementing network segmentation as a compensating control is the best immediate action because it will help contain any potential future breaches by limiting lateral movement across the network, providing time to restore the primary defense mechanisms. Updating the incident response plan is a post-incident activity and so it does not provide immediate risk mitigation. Conducting a root cause analysis is a vital post-incident activity, but it is not immediately helpful in controlling the current vulnerability. Extending VPN access would likely increase the attack surface and is not a suitable compensating control under the circumstances.

The correct answer is 'Command and Control' because this phase of the MITRE ATT&CK framework deals with how an adversary communicates with systems under their control within a victim's network. Establishing a reverse shell is a common technique used by adversaries to maintain control over a system and pass commands back and forth. 'Initial Access' is incorrect because it refers to the techniques used to gain an initial foothold in a network. 'Privilege Escalation' involves gaining higher-level permissions on a system or network and 'Impact' refers to techniques used to disrupt, destroy, or manipulate business processes.

The correct answer is 'D. Systems and data affected by the breach'. Including a detailed account of the systems and data affected is essential for understanding the full scope of the incident. This information is vital for management to comprehend the extent of the breach and to make informed decisions about how to proceed with containment, eradication, and recovery processes. 'A. A list of all employees in the company' is irrelevant to the scope of the incident. 'B. The company's total annual cybersecurity budget' does not directly relate to the specific incident scope. 'C. Percentage of network bandwidth utilized during the breach' may provide technical insight but does not effectively communicate the scope of the affected assets.

Prioritization and escalation are fundamental steps in vulnerability response and management. Using the risk management principles to assess the level of threat posed by each vulnerability is the best way to prioritize them, as it takes into account their potential impact on the organization and regulatory requirements. Patch requirement is an important consideration, but it should be assessed after determining the risk level. Scope of impact is part of the risk assessment rather than the first step. Asset criticality is only one aspect of the risk and does not provide a complete prioritization on its own.

Government cyber security bulletins play a vital role in security operations by providing timely and authoritative information on a variety of cyber-related threats, vulnerabilities, and incidents. They are known for offering standard advisories, mitigation strategies, and best practices to protect network and information systems, making them a valuable resource for professionals to implement informed security measures.

The correct answer is 'Assessing the effectiveness of the organization's threat hunting practices'. In the case of an APT, where the adversary has managed to stay undetected for an extended period, it is imperative to evaluate the threat hunting capabilities, as these are designed to proactively detect and isolate sophisticated threats that evade traditional security measures. Reviewing patch management policies might be an appropriate measure, but it is less specific to the given scenario of an APT which typically circumvents such defenses. Evaluating the encryption methods for data at rest is a security best practice but does not directly address the issue of detection and prolonged unauthorized access. Implementing a network segmentation strategy could help to contain movement within the network, but it would not necessarily identify the root cause of how the APT remained undetected.

Securing the original evidence while making a forensic copy is essential to maintain the integrity of the evidence for legal purposes and analysis. By using write blockers, analysts ensure that no additional data is written to the original evidence, which helps in preserving the state of the storage media at the time of the incident. The other options, while important in the forensic process, do not represent the initial action that should be taken to protect the integrity of the investigation.